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Early recognition and treatment of pelvic fractures

doi: 10.1097/
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INSTRUCTIONS Early recognition and treatment of pelvic fractures


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Early recognition and treatment of pelvic fractures

GENERAL PURPOSE: To provide information about pelvic fractures and their management. LEARNING OBJECTIVES: After reading this article and taking the test, you should be able to: 1. Identify risk factors for pelvic fractures. 2. Describe the types of pelvic fractures. 3. Describe the management of pelvic fractures.

  1. In the case study, because L complained of severe pelvic pain associated with external rotation of his lower extremities, the first responders
    1. applied a pelvic binder.
    2. determined his GCS score.
    3. alerted the trauma team of possible hip fractures.
    4. alerted the facility to the need for surgical team preparation.
  2. In the case study, the trauma nurse alerted the blood bank of the potential need for which type of blood?
    1. A negative
    2. B negative
    3. O negative
    4. AB negative
  3. Pelvic fractures represent approximately what percentage of traumatic injuries treated in North American trauma centers?
    1. 5%
    2. 10%
    3. 20%
    4. 25%
  4. Mortality rises to 50% for patients with which type of pelvic fractures?
    1. open fractures
    2. sacral fractures
    3. acetabular fractures
    4. avulsion injuries
  5. Disruption of the anterior pelvic ligaments causes
    1. vertical instability.
    2. rotational instability.
    3. both rotational and horizontal instability.
    4. both horizontal and lateral instability.
  6. Pubic bone fractures are often associated with injuries to the
    1. small intestine.
    2. uterus.
    3. liver.
    4. lower urinary tract.
  7. Appropriate pelvic binder application includes centering the binder over the
    1. sacrum.
    2. iliac crests.
    3. pubic bones.
    4. greater trochanters.
  8. Which classification system is most commonly used for pelvic fractures?
    1. Tile
    2. Garden
    3. Young-Burgess
    4. Torode and Zieg
  9. Which of the following doesn't place a patient at higher risk for hemorrhage due to pelvic fracture?
    1. male gender
    2. hypotension
    3. sacral-iliac joint disruption
    4. age over 60 years
  10. A straddle injury most often occurs in
    1. car crashes.
    2. motorcycle crashes.
    3. same-level falls.
    4. falls from a great height.
  11. For every 6 units of packed red blood cells, how many units of platelets should be administered?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 6
  12. If L weighs 180 lb (82 kg), what minimal hourly urine output needs to be maintained?
    1. 40 ml
    2. 65 ml
    3. 82 ml
    4. 100 ml
  13. Neuropathies are usually associated with
    1. sacral fractures.
    2. pubic rami injuries.
    3. venous plexus injuries.
    4. puboprostatic ligament ruptures.
  14. What should be done when a patient has scrotal edema?
    1. Insert a urinary catheter.
    2. Use a towel roll for scrotal elevation.
    3. Remove the pelvic binder.
    4. Request a focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) study.
  15. Foot drop is caused by damage to which nerve?
    1. peroneal
    2. pudendal
    3. obturator nerve
    4. superior gluteal
  16. The “D” in the primary survey stands for
    1. drugs.
    2. damage.
    3. dislocations.
    4. disability.
  17. In the case study, a urinary catheter wasn't placed because
    1. the FAST test was positive.
    2. the urethrogram was negative.
    3. blood was noted at the penile meatus.
    4. retroperitoneal hemorrhage was suspected.
  18. Which type of injury is not usually associated with pelvic fractures?
    1. bowel injury
    2. bladder injury
    3. prostate injury
    4. urethral injury


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