A 22-year-old man presents to your office with a perianal abscess and occasional mild crampy abdominal pain. You take him to the operating room for an examination under anesthesia (EUA) with incision and drainage of the abscess and note a transphincteric fistula tract through which you place a seton and 2 large skin tags. The anal canal and rectum are without ulceration, but there are mild proctitis and nonprolapsing internal hemorrhoids. Because of a concern for Crohn’s disease (CD), he undergoes magnetic resonance enterography and colonoscopy. The magnetic resonance enterography shows inflammation in 20 cm of the distal terminal ileum, and colonoscopy reveals approximately 10 ulcers <5 mm in the terminal ileum without significant narrowing. He is seen in consultation for the initiation of a monoclonal antibody and returns to see you in the office after his first 3 infusions. He is feeling well, has significantly decreased drainage from the perianal fistula, but would really like his seton and skin tags removed while you are there.