INSTRUCTIONS Pelvic fractures in adults
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Pelvic fractures in adults
General Purpose: To provide information on the management of persons with pelvic fractures. Learning Objectives: After reading the preceding article and taking this test, you should be able to:1. Examine the epidemiology and classification of pelvic fractures in relation to pelvic anatomy. 2. Select assessment and diagnostic techniques and treatments for persons with pelvic fractures.
1. Which is not one of the three coxal bones?
2. Which ligament is responsible for inferior stability of the pelvis?
a. anterior longitudinal ligament
b. sacrotuberous ligament
c. anterior sacroiliac ligament
d. iliolumbar ligament
3. Which artery runs under the pelvic brim and exits underneath the inguinal ligament?
a. the middle rectal artery
b. the inferior gluteal artery
c. the external iliac artery
d. the lateral sacral artery
4. The Young-Burgess classification of pelvic fractures is based on
a. the stability of the pelvis.
b. the time since the injury.
c. the MOI.
d. whether the fracture is open or closed.
5. The Tile classification of pelvic fractures is based on
a. the stability of the pelvis.
b. the extent of vertical shear injury.
c. associated injuries.
6. Using the Tile system, a category C pelvic fracture is classified as
c. minimally displaced.
d. partially stable.
7. Anteroposterior compression injuries usually occur as a result of a
a. pedestrian being struck by an automobile.
b. fall from standing.
c. combined MOI.
d. motor vehicle or motorcycle injury.
8. A pelvic fracture caused by a fall from a height typically results in a
a. LC injury.
b. a “bucket handle” fracture.
c. an “open book” fracture.
d. vertical shear injury.
9. Which diagnostic test should be performed on all hemodynamically unstable trauma patients with a GCS score less than 13?
a. an AP pelvis radiograph
b. a three-dimensional reconstruction of the pelvis
c. a CT scan of the pelvis
d. a magnetic resonance imaging scan
10. The FAST exam is performed to determine if there is
a. damage to the lumbosacral nerve plexus.
b. intraabdominal bleeding.
c. ligamentous injury.
d. a pelvic ring fracture.
11. A goal of the SCIP is to reduce morbidity/mortality associated with
a. uncontrolled bleeding.
b. atelectasis and pneumonia.
c. postoperative vomiting and aspiration.
d. postoperative surgical site infections.
12. “Damage control” resuscitation for persons with pelvic fractures is accomplished by
a. performing an open reduction repair of the pelvis with internal fixation (ORIF).
b. starting antibiotic administration within 60 minutes of incision time.
c. packing the preperitoneal cavity with pads and applying an external fixation device.
d. administering high volume crystalloids, blood, and blood products.
13. The preferred method to control arterial retroperitoneal bleeding is
a. stabilizing the pelvic ring.
b. angiography and embolization.
c. a pelvic binder.
d. the administration of blood and blood products.
14. The first priority in the management of pelvic fractures is to
a. stabilize the fracture.
b. address significant, related soft tissue injuries.
c. control bleeding.
d. manage pain.
15. “Alternative treatments” for pelvic fractures include all of the following except
a. percutaneous pinning with external fixation.
b. CT-guided screw fixation.
c. ORIF of the symphysis pubis and posterior iliosacral joint.
d. minimally invasive pinning of the dorsal pelvic ring.
16. Percutaneous pinning along with an external fixation frame often is used in pelvic fractures
a. with perineal injuries.
b. without fractures of the pelvic ring.
c. with an intact posterior sacroiliac complex.
d. with femur injuries.
17. Urinary incontinence post injury results from damage to the sacral nerve roots
a. one and two.
b. three and four.
c. five and six.
d. seven and eight.
18. In the case study presented, blood in the patient's retroperitoneal space caused
b. decreased liver function tests.
c. deep vein thrombosis.
d. a peripelvic abscess.
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